So when I use that formula I get: .69$2000 (on a more typical non loss year) + $381127 (principal remaining, 5/2050 mature date) + 470000 (~ appreciation) = 853,127/($850,000 (property value) - $381,127 (principal remaining)) = .69That is what i get with that formula but I do not understand the differnce between "mortgage paydown and "debt" as aren't those the same thing?

I'm looking for a short-term rental (to generate active losses), but maybe I'm thinking about this wrong...  

This might be 50% given the loss of the parking revenue.DO NOT buy!!!!   

Even if you have money for the 20% down, it's not wise to spend your last dime making that down payment and leaving yourself vulnerable to losses from a bad tenant or maintenance costs.If you want to be a successful investor, increase your earnings, reduce your expenses, save up, and buy wisely. 

This is a great strategy for high income earners as they can purchase a short-term rental get a cost segregation and slam a huge loss through to offset current years income. 

My first time here -Trying to bounce back from Covid-19 losses. 

Depending on how much you make for your W2 income, those losses are deductible, phased out, and not allowed at all.

A 2-block difference could be the difference between appreciation and loss.

I do have customer service background working in high end restaurants in Orlando for 8 years (getting food shopped all the time and passing with 100%) and feel I would be an excellent asset to someones property in it becoming a successful STR.

Do you expect a loss?