If a world pre-OCC consent agreement or DOJ settlement these servicers would push default after X amount of payments.

It outlines terms in a great degree and I actually reviewed the lease which has the following clause “Access by Landlord to Premises – Subject to tenant’s consent (which shall not be unreasonably withheld), Landlord shall have the right to enter Premises to make inspection and provide necessary services, or show the units to prospective buyers, mortgagees, or prospective tenants.”

Without some kind of operating agreement indicating that he has the right to lien the property you all own, I'm surprised the bank is ok with it, unless they are having the other deeded owners sign some kind of consent for closing?

Can the county force the sale without the tax certificate holder's consent (or at least notification)?  

Steve, there must be written consent for an assumption in a seller financed note, best to include some reasonable parameters, consent not unreasonably withheld.  

We're currently waiting on a signed consent form to get information from the bank, but I thought I'd reach out to see if anyone has had this experience and if so what would be options (other than speaking with an attorney) to get passed this.

The only thing worse being in a bad deal for 30 days is being in a bad deal for 30 days and 1 extra day.Also at play is how the earnest money can be terminated and if it involves mutual consent from both parties. 

Example contract verbiage:"This contract is assignable by Buyer without the written consent of Seller.

If you are searched without your consent and they do not have probable cause a lawyer can throw their case out. 

@Danny Duran I'm marketing the deal (with the owner's consent) but I decided to not sign the contract.