I did not believe I qualified for a solo401k, since I was participating in my 9am-6pm Employer's 401k. 

One way to access your retirement funds to put into your own deal is to take a participant loan from your Solo 401k, the loan is limited to $50,000 or 50% of the balance, whichever is less. 

@Debb Childs, congrats on your first forum post, I see that you have been a member for over two years, what took you so long to finally participate in this awesome resource??

How much did it cost, not getting it, in the ability to participate in future hands...with less chips in front of him?

Without the borrower willing to participate in a short sale, you have No chance of getting a reduced pay off, assuming this is a traditional lender/mtg.

Also, thank you for the details on Diversified Investors Group, I will definitely try to participate in an upcoming meeting.

The Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) today announced that Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac (the Enterprises) will conclude their single-family rental pilot programs and then terminate their participation in the single-family rental market except through their previously existing investor programs – Fannie Mae’s Multiple Financed Properties and Freddie Mac’s Investment Property Mortgages.Not trying to discredit anything, but this was a 2 year pilot program.... seems like plenty were able to do ok prior to that, wouldn't it be likely they could continue after as well?

Is the community not participating in flood controls as a whole?  

While the definition of what constitutes a disqualified person is detailed and complex ( See IRC Sec.4975(e0(2)), the IRA participant will always be considered a disqualified person with respect to investing the IRA in real estate for personal use (whether for partial or full use).The proposed transaction would specifically violate the following prohibited transaction rule. transfer to, or use by or for the benefit of, a disqualified person of the income or assets of an IRA;https://www.irs.gov/retirement-plans/plan-particip...

We have only used private money to finance 100% of our previous deals.We do have the ability to fund the rehab, but philosophically it is not our preference to tie up that much cash, for what in this case will be a longer rehab.We also have the ability to raise the $100K from either another source 100% or a few different sources participating with $50K a piece.My question is this -- since we have previously raised all of the funds used on a project from a single source, we have been able to secure their investment with a first lien/ deed of trust.