@Bill G.
No biting was ever intended. Just clarity. When that didn't happen, I simply asked for clarity again. It's probably my fault for recognizing early on, it just wasn't going to happen. I didn't cast the first stone, but I accept responsibility for my actions. I should never have followed down that path for it is beneath me. My apologies for responding in kind.
Can we move past this?
I agree with using a loan servicer. Actually, I've always insisted on the same in every Seller finance, carry back, etc. transaction. I believe the Buyer and Seller benefit from them.
As a loan servicer yourself, can you shed light on how they would address the receipt of an escrow overage check from the mortgage company? Here's a scenario I'm thinking of: the original borrower sells to the investor using sub2 (no POA'S). The investor brings the loan current and always pays on time. After several years with no issues or changes, taxes or insurance changes result in an escrow overage check to be issued. Would the investor (current owner) have an expectation that the Escrow overage belong to them as a result of paying into the Escrow for the period that resulted in the overage? If so, how would the investor (current owner) cash the check? I'm wondering if you think there is language that could be in the purchase contract/Addendum that would have clearly addressed a situation like this. If, in your opinion, the Escrow overages belong to the original borrower and they haven't maintained communication with the investor, and no known address is available...what should the investor do to attempt to do the right thing?
2nd question: What language do YOU use when disclosing to the mortgage company that you intend to purchase sub2?
I truly hope you and the entire BP family recognize these as honest questions in hopes of receiving helpful resposes. Truce?