So, If I bought a house in Texas for 100k 3/2/2 and rented it for ..I dunno $1000 a month. I would need to rent for another 500 to cover expenses. Using the 50% rule of thumb.
Then I bought a house in a fancier neighborhood in Texas for 200K but was still same size 3/2/2 and I rented it for $2000 a month. So using the 50% rule I will have to rent this house for an additional 1000 so to be half of the monthly rent to cover expenses.
So other words, the morgage is obviously different. But expenses?
Same house same builder, but because the dirt/lot in the fancy neighborhood was more expensive how does this increase expenses. New roof still costs the same either house.
Ummm, after writing this it appears I would need to use this extra expense for vacany? But the analysis tool accounts for this. Right?
I dunno, I am just a newbie, but rules of thumb were developed for a reason and I can see how things like this would be hard to understand especially for somebody Like me who has always thought you need to rent to cover the mortgage and all is good.
Of course that was before I found this site and started to research more and more about the true costs of being a landlord and all the challenges that come with it.