So I have a pretty simply question that I cannot seem to wrap my head around. I just read this post by @Brandon Turnerhttps://www.biggerpockets.com/renewsblog/40000-brr...
My confusion lies within the financing part. The original private money loan was for $83k at 12% interest only. Months later after the house is rehabbed and rented the new appraisal is for $145k and a potential for $108k refinance. Let's assume for this argument he actually decided to refinance for the full amount.
Does he receive the $108k in the form of a check or wire transfer from the bank? If so, after the original lender is paid back ($83k) , you're only left with $25k, which is less than the approximate $30k out of pocket cost (rehab money, holding cost, closing, etc.) .
Why then does he say he had enough money to pay the lender back and himself on top of it? Am I missing something?
Follow up question - Can this method be done using conventional banking and/or lines of credit from a bank or does the first "buy" portion need to be completed with private money?