Sorry for not answering your questions. See my responses below:
So the owner pays 440k on day one. You do not pay anything on day one. Is that correct? Yes, I would not pay anything on day 1. Owner pays the closing costs on a mortgage so the total cost of the townhome would not be due day 1.
You make mortgage payments beginning on day one and manage the property for 5-years. NOI is 42k. Owner gets 21k and you get 21k minus the P&I payments. Is that correct? NOI will equal 42K but that factors in P&I payments.
Sell at 5 years: 530k minus 42k (8%) equals 488k. Is that correct? Yes, that is correct
How did you calculate 121k each? Profit to me would be 488k minus owner's initial investment (440k) equals 48k. The 50/50 split would be 24k. What am I doing wrong? Initial investment day 1 is $108,900 for closing fees ($82,500 + $26,400). Mortgage is $247,500 on day 1 and after 5 years is approximately $234,000. After the sale in 5 years, the value of the townhouse increases from $330,000 to $450,000 (7% annual market rate in my area). The balance of the loan is paid at closing and you have $216,000 equity. After final sale closing costs ($36,000) you actually have $180,00 to split 50/50. The more down payment you make, the less interest you pay on the mortgage which makes your profit at sale higher.
Couldn't the owner keep the property and take out a 75% loan (only 82k cash from owner), hire a PM @ 8%, cashflow about $350 per month, sell at 530k, pay off remaining principal (lets say 200k) and pay 42k closing costs, and walk away with 288k from an 82k investment? Yes, that assumes the owner can have a mortgage in their name.