Thanks @Zane McLaughlin and @Bill Gulley
Well I'm still in learning phase, and my questions were just after this part in Brandon's beginners course here in BP, and some googling
As a beginner it is hard for me to extract the answers from yours, so I'll try to sum the answers according to my questions:
1. So I'm correct - the loan is actually changing the note on the asset under the buyer's name
2. This kind of deal is mainly for houses that need no\minor rehab or any other one time payment. And if the assets do need some treatment, I'll better save cash in my bank account for this
3. Couldn't understand the answer to that question
Just to be clear, I'm not talking about a situation where the seller want "seller financing" deal, hence the price is higher than usual
I'm talking about a regular deal where the suggestion of "seller financing" is mine, and we already agreed about a price that both sides are happy with
So after setting a price that both sided are happy with, why can't I use this method without an interest? The seller will still get the money he wants
Thanks : )