I recently talked to a lender about getting a mortgage for a foreclosure. I told him that I wanted to purchase the property, do some moderate rehabbing, and then resell the property.
He seemed confused that I wanted to buy only to resell a short time later (flip). Is this because conventional/investment property loans aren’t normally used for flips? I realize that I might have to hold it for up to a year with this type of financing. Is he just not used to dealing with flips?
I said I thought the property was a decent deal (asking 96k when comparable houses sell for 130-140k). However, he said something along the lines of “the seller wants to make a profit too, why would it be underpriced?”
Because this is my first deal, his confusion has caused me to be a little hesitant. Am I doing something wrong here? I thought bank owned foreclosures were often sold at a discount. Am I misunderstanding something?
Thanks everyone!
John