Quote from @Joe Villeneuve:
Quote from @Victor Saumarez:
Quote from @Joe Villeneuve:
Quote from @Nathan Gesner:
Quote from @Jacques Villars:
The 1% rule is a filtering device, not a method of calculating return. If you are evaluating a lot of properties, you can use a rule like the 1% rule to filter out the properties least likely to meet your requirements, then you spend time digging into the ones that are most likely to work for you. That's all it does. If you look at a property that appears to meet the 1% rule and never evaluate it farther than that, then you're making a big mistake.
Here's a guide that describes what good cash flow looks like and how to analyze a property.
https://www.biggerpockets.com/...
At best it's a poor filtering device. Depending on the market, it can filter out almost as many cash flow properties as the ones that don't. There's no direct relationship between the property value and the rent. Also, There's no common ratio between the rent and cash flow.
There's no direct relation between rental values and home value? So, would a $10,000 a month rental sell for $100,000? Or, would a $1m dollar home rent for $1,000 a month?
Cash flow is a product of rent (net of expenses). Expenses and rent are linked to value, ergo, there is a relationship between cash flow and rent.
So what you're saying is there is a formula, oh, like the 1% rule, that can automatically tell you what the rent will be based on the cost of the property? Ah,...no. There is no ratio. Buyers and renters are two different people, with 2 different sets of criteria. What a renter is willing to pay for a property could be more or less ratio wise than what a buyer is willing to pay for that same property. Just because someone who wants to "buy" a property will pay a specific dollar amount, doesn't mean that sale price will dictate a specific "rent". There is no formula that says: PV * R * Rent.
PV = Property Value
Ratio % = R
Rent = Rent
More important, even if there was, it wouldn't matter since the expenses have no relationship to the rents either. A house that rents for $2000/month in 2 different Markets, won't have the same cost of expenses. One might have a CF of $500 a month, and the other might have negative CF.
Your example is poor at best. Your comparing apples and corn. The comparison should be based on the same house value in different areas. As in, will all houses where the PV is $100,000 rent for the same rent,...no matter where they are located?
I think you are missing the point about financial ratios. Ratios are not infallible. They are only a guide and are mostly backward looking. Experienced investors know past performance is not a guarantee of future performance. Ratios are a guide and are often used 'relatively' or 'comparatively'. In fact, they are often ambiguous when viewed in isolation. They are not intended as fool-proof guarantees. However, if you are looking to invest, you ignore the 'numbers' at your peril.
Most comments above are suggesting the 1% rule as a 'first pass' filtering mechanism once you have chosen your location. This clearly makes sense.
More broadly, returns are built around 'expectations' of future performance. A simple analogy with the Dividend Discount Model shows that present value is arrived at by discounting future cash flows. This demonstrates a widely held belief, if you will, that cash flows and value are inextricably linked. The cash flow method of working backwards to arrive at an acceptable price using rental comps is also a useful valuation tool. The CRE industry uses the Gross Rent Multiplier (GRM). It simply divides fair market value by rent. If you know the going GRM you simply multiply gross rents by the ratio to arrive at value.
Values and rents are not necessarily arbitrary. They are fixed by markets acting efficiently—at least most of the time. Although there will be variability depending on many factors, rents and values do have a relationship. If they weren't we'd all be at sixes and sevens. I hope that makes sense.