It seems that the PM probably meant to say that the vendor (seller) had to consent before we could do an estoppel, not that they were responsible for it. I'm not sure if I heard it wrong, if he worded it incorrectly, or if he really didn't know.
But perhaps he isn't aware of the correct or legal steps to take in certain circumstances. I like to give people chances...everyone makes mistakes at times.
But then again, my tenant in this case was late on the 5th. PM couldn't locate him on the 6th, but located tenant's adult daughter, who also lives there, on the 7th (Friday) and handed her the 3 day notice, which he also mailed. 3 business days later (the following Wed.), PM talks to his attorney to begin eviction on Thursday and attorney tells him that since the daughter is not on the lease, he has to start the 3 day process over again. I didn't know what to say when he told me, except that I appreciated his honesty and that he could redeem himself if he gets those tenants out before the end of the month. But now, counting 2 weekends and both 3 day time frames, I've lost 10 in this process.
I'll consider a post-close estoppel at least for the experience, if anything,