IMO, if the banks agree to sell a property at short sale to buyer one at a certain price, what difference does it make if buyer 1 sells it to buyer 2 for a profit?
If the banks are unhappy with buyer 1's price, don't accept the short sale offer. If they are happy, then don't worry about what buyer 1 does with the property.
I understand in some circumstances there can be influence by parties involved, but the reality of the situation is the bank fully accepted buyer 1's offer....what buyer 1 does with the property, whether he keeps it or sells it for a 'profit' is not of the banks concern once they accept buyer 1's offer.
If you sell your car to a guy and after negotiation you agree to a sales price of $5000 and the guy turns around and sells it to a prearranged buyer for $6500, is it fraud that the guy didn't bring his buyer directly to you? No. You were happy with the $5000 offer and accepted it. If you want the $6500 offer, reject the $5000 and keep on holding the property...watch the costs add up...