Skip to content
×
PRO
Pro Members Get Full Access!
Get off the sidelines and take action in real estate investing with BiggerPockets Pro. Our comprehensive suite of tools and resources minimize mistakes, support informed decisions, and propel you to success.
Advanced networking features
Market and Deal Finder tools
Property analysis calculators
Landlord Command Center
$0
TODAY
$69.00/month when billed monthly.
$32.50/month when billed annually.
7 day free trial. Cancel anytime
Already a Pro Member? Sign in here
Pick markets, find deals, analyze and manage properties. Try BiggerPockets PRO.
x
All Forum Categories
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

All Forum Posts by: Andrew White

Andrew White has started 2 posts and replied 3 times.

I’m selling a rental investment property I solely own (Property 1). I would like to avoid (uhmm...defer) capital gains tax by investing profits in another rental investment I own (Property 2)...basically reduce principal on current debt owed to bank, and this Property 2 is also more expensive (which means technically putting toward higher debt).  My question:

[Option A] Can I utilize the capital gain defer rule by simply re-financing Property 2 and applying (investing) Property 1 profits toward Property 2 principal?

[Option B] If Option A is no, can I re-purchase Property 2 under an LLC, (so technically it's a new investment purchase) and defer capital gain taxes from Property 1?

[Option C] Uncle Sam has me cornered, and I’m paying up now?

Post: 2 Townhouse, 1 loan?

Andrew WhitePosted
  • Lexington, KY
  • Posts 3
  • Votes 0

Thank you for the prompt feedback!

Post: 2 Townhouse, 1 loan?

Andrew WhitePosted
  • Lexington, KY
  • Posts 3
  • Votes 0

Hello,

I currently have contract to buy a duplex in Lexington, KY.  Two weeks into the loan/under writing process, the lender just told me the lot/structure is considered two townhouses, not a duplex (I confirmed he is correct per local PVA). 

Instead of one conventional loan, the lender now requires two separate loans (split total price) to purchase.  Downside is split single contract into two, double closing costs and increased mortgage insurance costs.

MY QUESTION:

Does this sound correct, or is the underwriter mistaken...Do multiple townhomes require their own individual loans for each single unit (even if apart of the same structure)?