@Dave Foster Thank you for the reply!
1st paragraph: That makes sense, however if I am the sole owner of investment real estate, sell that property, then invest in a Real Eastate syndicate, how is that not "Like-Kind"? I think I know the answer, as I am going from owning property, to owning a share in a company (llc, lp, etc.), correct?
2nd paragraph: That's starting to make more sense, as I actually start analyzing how the ROR and IRR relate to each other.
3rd Paragraph: That is good to know. So if I have to pay Capital Gains on the investment (which I would presume I would do on a yearly basis with K1's distributed to me) how would that look on the back end? To expand upon my statement above and put it in real terms, an investment of $100k which is borrowed at 5% interest yields the following in an 8% ROR:
8% ROR on $100k = $8000/yr
5% Interest on $100k = $5000/yr
That is a net of $3000/yr
After 5 years, it's a net of $15k.
Now I'm trying to figure out how the IRR plays into this number. More specifically, what would be the distribution if the property is sold at what the GP's assumed it would sell for (or refinanced), then figure in taxes, which would then get me a real number of how much my current investment would be worth (NPV?)