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Updated almost 10 years ago,
Estimating ARV
Can someone please explain the following to me, as I don't get it...
(Please forgive me if this is a no-brain er)
So I'm pulling comps and here's what I encountered:
Subject property - 4bd, 3ba, and 2300 sq ft., asking price is 725,000.
Comp property - 5 bd, 2ba, and 2795 sq ft., sold at 548,000.
Why did comp property sell at such a low price, in spite of greater amount of sq ft and higher number of bdrm? (Obviously this would not be considered a deal from a wholesaler point of view).