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Updated about 11 years ago on . Most recent reply
![Reggie Youngblood's profile image](https://bpimg.biggerpockets.com/no_overlay/uploads/social_user/user_avatar/113630/1621417552-avatar-ryoungblood77.jpg?twic=v1/output=image/cover=128x128&v=2)
What should I do???
Had a seller call in that sold the property but it is still in his name and behind on taxes. He can't get in touch with the person that bought it and doesn't want to take that hit on his credit. Should I just go ahead and put it under contract?
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- Lender
- Greater LA/Orange County area, CA
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I tried to follow this thread however it seems to be economical with the facts.
Former owner calls wholesaler, @Reggie Youngblood, concerned that their former property is going to sale for defaulted property taxes. They are also concerned about their credit due to property being sold subject-to their old mortgage.
Additionally, former owner accepted a purchase money note but that has been paid and satisfied. No record of transfer can be found such as a recorded deed (to date) and it is believed that new "owner" may reside in the subject property but does not respond to former owner's attempts to contact.
Is this about right? Geez, my nose is telling me that there's not much upside but a lot of downside to working with this former owner. As a wholesaler, I would think it essential to be clear on the facts since you would be making only a modest profit margin and can't take a big hit from lawsuits due to tortuous interference, etc.