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Updated about 11 years ago,
Is this correctly passing the 1% and 50% rule?
First of all, feel free to read over this, Its mostly me writing out loud.
I've got a duplex I'm looking at purchasing. The basement is being very nicely remodeled and will be finished next week. The upstairs is rented by a cat lady (3+ cats) who doesn't bother to turn on her bathroom vent fan so she's creating some problems. The property is listed on the MLS but it has just gone into foreclosure and the attorney will take over any moment it sounds like. The asking price is 145k while comps are averaging 127k for the area. Rent currently is $690 but could probably match the $900 Zillow predicts.
Following the 1% rule: 1% of ARV is $1270 a month. Divide by half because I'll be living in it so one unit needs to pay at least $635 towards mortgage payments which is already covered by the current upstairs renter ($690).
Following the 50% rule: Half the 1% rent of $1270 is $635. I can bump up the current renter to $735 so I have $100 bucks extra over the monthly mortgage payment of $532. This is calculated on a $105000 loan with 4.5% over 30 years.
In reality, at the price of 105000, with the current rent bumped to $735 from $690, this deal passes the 50% rule and 1% rule. Almost no new repairs are needed. What else is missing?