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Updated almost 5 years ago on . Most recent reply
![Ray Trounday's profile image](https://bpimg.biggerpockets.com/no_overlay/uploads/social_user/user_avatar/524/1621345480-avatar-rayman65.jpg?twic=v1/output=image/cover=128x128&v=2)
Arriving at Effective Rate/Yield for a Note with a Balloon
I have been working my HP 10bii to arrive at the Effective Rate/Yield on purchase of a note with a balloon. Lets set aside for the moment the likely-hood of having the borrower actually pay the balloon. In most cases, borrowers will need to refinance prior to having the balloon due. I digress back to my example:
Loan Type: 5 year loan with balloon (Payment amortized over 30 years
Original Loan Balance: 100000
Rate: 9.99
Payment: -876.83
Amortization Term: 360
I will need to first calculate the balance that is due on the 60th payment. So, I do the following:
N: 60
I/YR: 9.99
PV: 100,000
Payment: -876.83
Calculate FV
Balance due: -96,957.91
Lets say that I buy the full note for 70k. So, I modify my PV from 100k to 70k leaving everything else the same from above
PV: 70,000
N: 60
Payment: -876.83
I arrive at Effective Rate/Yield: 19.56
Thoughts on the correctness on the above?
Most Popular Reply
![Andy Mirza's profile image](https://bpimg.biggerpockets.com/no_overlay/uploads/social_user/user_avatar/205694/1621433122-avatar-andy_mirza.jpg?twic=v1/output=image/cover=128x128&v=2)
@Ray Trounday I haven't checked your work but it seems intuitively correct to me. However, I think IRR would be a lot more of a useful metric because it will include your the delta between your purchase price and the balloon payment. With regular cash flows over a five year period, it should be pretty quick to figure out, even on your calculator (as opposed to excel). Just my thoughts....