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Updated almost 6 years ago,
Owner occupied note with 2 year balloon originated after 2014
I've been offered to purchase an owner occupied first position mortgage note on a home in Florida, originated in 2016 at 6% with a 30 year amortization but a balloon due in 2 years in 2018. Borrower has defaulted on the payments. I'm concerned that the loan may be out of Dodd Frank compliance due to the short balloon date. The seller did not originate the loan, it was purchased from a private party who did the origination.
Does anyone have any thoughts as to weather this would affect enforceability for foreclosure should the borrower challenge it?
Thanks