1st Lien Modification Question

[Joshua Andrews]

I have a question regarding modifying a defaulted 1st lien on a property. Here is an example. The original payment was extremely low, say $200. It was since defaulted on years ago, and now arrears have accrued. Is there anything preventing the note holder of working out a modification with the borrower where the monthly payment is MORE than the original payment they have defaulted on?

To be clear it would now be more because the total balance they owe would be more, etc. I have never run into a situation like this so I thought I would get some feedback. Thanks!

Josh