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Updated about 4 years ago on . Most recent reply
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What is considered an actual rent receipt per Purch Agrmt?
Hello!
I'm under contract for a home and in the contract we have language "seller to provide monthly rent receipts" since we are planning on inheriting the tenants. The sellers have sent over a copy/paste from Zelle showing that the tenants paid, but for about 5 out of the past 12 months they stated the tenants paid in cash. For those cash transactions, he sent over a copy/paste from his Wells Fargo statement - see below. I've removed the reference number for privacy purposes just in case. Now, maybe I'm crazy, but I'm pretty sure you can't deposit cash via mobile right? Lastly, if I wanted to walk away from the deal, given that the above documentation mentioned was received, would that suffice in terms of the agreement technically being unfulfilled and I would be able to cancel the agreement?
From the seller:
Here is the best I can do. I can't get receipts but this is C&P from my WF statement. The totals reflect the rent, as well as other checks or cash that I was depositing.
05/06/20 |
MOBILE DEPOSIT : REF NUMBER :XXXXX open dialog |
$3,052.90 |
Also just for reference - I'm not just being a jerk and changing my mind and looking for a way out. I've just recently found out additional information regarding what the seller stated the current tenants were paying vs. what they're actually paying so I'm trying to find solutions but also want to explore all options in case I need a way out.
We're planning on seeking out an attorney once the Holidays are over but of course I had to get this off my mind on here to see if anyone had insight.
Thanks!
Shan
Most Popular Reply
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Originally posted by @Steve Morris:
Only thing with estoppels, if they're lying about rents, why wouldn't they lie on an estoppel if you don't trust either one?
Suppose it'd give you some more recourse, but sounds like asking tenants to leave by close is better.
Chances are, the seller is not going to get the current tenants out prior to closing. In fact, if I had to guess, it’s probably why he’s selling (i.e. tenant is “between jobs due to COVID”, hence he probably can’t evict her).
In any event, as to why to do the estoppel, it’s to confirm the CURRENT terms of the tenancy. Sounds like things have changed since the lease agreement was originally signed and he’s now giving her some kind of rent discount (either $1100 due to her reduced income or $1000 due to the inconvenience of the showings, it’s not clear).
Either way, assuming that was done verbally, the original lease wouldn’t reflect it. You’d need an estoppel to effectively get that info.
And yes, they could lie on an estoppel, but at least you’d be clear on what the CURRENT terms of the tenancy are as they alleged them to be, and then the buyer can make an informed decision on whether or not to proceed to closing.
And if you do close, you get to hold them to whatever they said on the estoppel because it’s presumed to be true AND binding on both the tenant and landlord. (Reference: Estoppel Certificates)
I see no reason not to get one. There’s no disadvantage for the buyer.