Clause in lease question

[Sylvia B.]

Could the bolded part of this clause in my lease agreement get me in trouble?

"USE OF PREMISES. The Premises shall be used and occupied solely by Tenant and Tenant's immediate family, consisting of spouse and children, exclusively, as a private single family dwelling, and no part of the Premises shall be used at any time during the term of this Lease Agreement by Tenant for the purpose of carrying on any business, profession, or trade of any kind, or for any purpose other than as a private single family dwelling. Tenant shall not allow any other person, other than Tenant's immediate family or transient relatives and friends who are guests of Tenant, to use or occupy the Premises without first obtaining Landlord's written consent to such use. Tenant shall comply with any and all laws, ordinances, rules and orders of any and all governmental or quasi-governmental authorities affecting the cleanliness, use, occupancy and preservation of the Premises."

If the people I rent to are married with children, and no one else is going to live with them, it should be fine, right? If not, then how should it be worded?

I realize that this wording won't work for an unmarried couple, but that hasn't come up so far.

Please note that this is from the lease, not the application. The application refers to "Applicant," "Co-Applicant" and "Dependents" and does not ask any questions about familial status.

[Jean Bolger]

Haha! This is why we have lawyers, I guess. We have a few simple sentences. We read them, and interpret them. Then we go around saying- "THIS is what that means" "No, THAT is what that means"