Skip to content
×
PRO
Pro Members Get Full Access!
Get off the sidelines and take action in real estate investing with BiggerPockets Pro. Our comprehensive suite of tools and resources minimize mistakes, support informed decisions, and propel you to success.
Advanced networking features
Market and Deal Finder tools
Property analysis calculators
Landlord Command Center
$0
TODAY
$69.00/month when billed monthly.
$32.50/month when billed annually.
7 day free trial. Cancel anytime
Already a Pro Member? Sign in here

Join Over 3 Million Real Estate Investors

Create a free BiggerPockets account to comment, participate, and connect with over 3 million real estate investors.
Use your real name
By signing up, you indicate that you agree to the BiggerPockets Terms & Conditions.
The community here is like my own little personal real estate army that I can depend upon to help me through ANY problems I come across.
Tax, SDIRAs & Cost Segregation
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

Updated almost 5 years ago,

User Stats

125
Posts
7
Votes
Jeremy Lee
  • Laguna Niguel, CA
7
Votes |
125
Posts

Co-ownership and section 121

Jeremy Lee
  • Laguna Niguel, CA
Posted

Hi all,

Wanted to pose an interesting question for feedback:

Is there anything in IRS section 121 that speaks to the impact on holding periods when there is an increase in ownership interest in the context of a property that is co-owned? 

For example: Party A and Party B co-own a property 50/50, where only Party B resides in the property and has resided there for a decade). Party A decides to quitclaim deed their 50% ownership to Party B (lets just say as a gift). Now that Party B has retained full ownership, can they go and sell the property and qualify for the capital gains exclusions provisioned under section 121 *without* needing to reside there for at least two years?

My understanding is that if Party A fully owned this property and outright gifted it to Party B in full, Party B would definitely be required to pass the ownership and use test and live there for at least two or more years. However, I don't see where in section 121 it would address the situation I presented (which is based on the premise that co-ownership was already established and there is now an increase in one party's ownership...). 

An alternative situation to the one presented is: Party A and Party B co-own a property 50/50 and Party B decides to build an in-law unit in the back yard, which would increase their ownership interest/stake. Because that ownership interest for Party B increased with the addition of the in-law unit that was added, would that really impact the ownership/use test and holding period to where they now wouldn't be able to sell that property without incurring capital gains unless they remained there for an additional 2 years?

Thoughts?

Loading replies...