Skip to content
×
PRO
Pro Members Get Full Access!
Get off the sidelines and take action in real estate investing with BiggerPockets Pro. Our comprehensive suite of tools and resources minimize mistakes, support informed decisions, and propel you to success.
Advanced networking features
Market and Deal Finder tools
Property analysis calculators
Landlord Command Center
$0
TODAY
$69.00/month when billed monthly.
$32.50/month when billed annually.
7 day free trial. Cancel anytime
Already a Pro Member? Sign in here

Join Over 3 Million Real Estate Investors

Create a free BiggerPockets account to comment, participate, and connect with over 3 million real estate investors.
Use your real name
By signing up, you indicate that you agree to the BiggerPockets Terms & Conditions.
The community here is like my own little personal real estate army that I can depend upon to help me through ANY problems I come across.
Tax, SDIRAs & Cost Segregation
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

Updated over 6 years ago,

User Stats

195
Posts
31
Votes
Tim Silvers
  • Las Vegas, NV
31
Votes |
195
Posts

Tax Implications of Seller Financing on rehabbed property

Tim Silvers
  • Las Vegas, NV
Posted

What are the tax implications for the seller of a seller financed property in which the seller purchased, remodeled and sold it on terms?

Hypothetical transaction with easy numbers:

1) Seller acquires property for $100K.

2) Sellers rehabs property for $25K.

3) Seller sells property to buyer for $200K via seller financing

4) Down payment $10,000.00. Loan is fully amortized. Term: 10 years, no balloon.

Specifically, how would the taxes be applied and would only a portion or all of the acquisition and rehab expenses be able to be deducted? Based on the above figures, how would that break down for the first year?

r, selling it for $100k. Buyer pays $40k down, and the rest will be paid via sellers financing at 5% interest on a 10 year note, 20 year amortizations with a balloon payment at the end.

Is it correct to assume that:

1. The $40k down is subject to capital gain on the year of closing.

2. The 5% interest is considered a regular interest income. Buyer can deduct this part. What about the portion of the payment that goes to the principal ?

3. When the balloon payment is paid, this is considered as capital gain on the year of the payment.