Skip to content
×
Pro Members Get
Full Access!
Get off the sidelines and take action in real estate investing with BiggerPockets Pro. Our comprehensive suite of tools and resources minimize mistakes, support informed decisions, and propel you to success.
Advanced networking features
Market and Deal Finder tools
Property analysis calculators
Landlord Command Center
ANNUAL Save 54%
$32.50 /mo
$390 billed annualy
MONTHLY
$69 /mo
billed monthly
7 day free trial. Cancel anytime
×
Take Your Forum Experience
to the Next Level
Create a free account and join over 3 million investors sharing
their journeys and helping each other succeed.
Use your real name
By signing up, you indicate that you agree to the BiggerPockets Terms & Conditions.
Already a member?  Login here
Creative Real Estate Financing
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

Updated almost 5 years ago on . Most recent reply

User Stats

18
Posts
14
Votes
Alan Robert Litz
  • Real Estate Agent
  • Norfolk, VA
14
Votes |
18
Posts

Who is the principal under with a Subject To deal?

Alan Robert Litz
  • Real Estate Agent
  • Norfolk, VA
Posted

When doing a Subject To deal who is the loan still under or how does it actually work? I have heard two scenarios, and I don't know which one is right. The first is that that the seller keeps the loan under his name. You then pay him and then he pays that debt. The second way I have heard it is you assume the loan from the seller and now you pay that debt. Any help in clarifying this would be greatly appreciated!

Most Popular Reply

Account Closed
  • Specialist
  • OverTheRainbow
909
Votes |
607
Posts
Account Closed
  • Specialist
  • OverTheRainbow
Replied
Originally posted by @Alan Robert Litz:

When doing a Subject To deal who is the loan still under or how does it actually work? I have heard two scenarios, and I don't know which one is right. The first is that that the seller keeps the loan under his name. You then pay him and then he pays that debt. The second way I have heard it is you assume the loan from the seller and now you pay that debt. Any help in clarifying this would be greatly appreciated!

 Subject to - the lender is not involved, the seller keeps the loan in his name.

Assumption - the buyer has to qualify with the lender and the loan goes into the buyer's name, if he qualifies 

Loading replies...