Skip to content
×
PRO
Pro Members Get Full Access!
Get off the sidelines and take action in real estate investing with BiggerPockets Pro. Our comprehensive suite of tools and resources minimize mistakes, support informed decisions, and propel you to success.
Advanced networking features
Market and Deal Finder tools
Property analysis calculators
Landlord Command Center
$0
TODAY
$69.00/month when billed monthly.
$32.50/month when billed annually.
7 day free trial. Cancel anytime
Already a Pro Member? Sign in here

Join Over 3 Million Real Estate Investors

Create a free BiggerPockets account to comment, participate, and connect with over 3 million real estate investors.
Use your real name
By signing up, you indicate that you agree to the BiggerPockets Terms & Conditions.
The community here is like my own little personal real estate army that I can depend upon to help me through ANY problems I come across.
Creative Real Estate Financing
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

Updated almost 12 years ago,

User Stats

6
Posts
0
Votes
Mark Wilson
  • Austin, TX
0
Votes |
6
Posts

How would you pitch this owner finance deal?

Mark Wilson
  • Austin, TX
Posted

I have located a property I would like to purchase as a 2nd home. Seller owns home free and clear and may be willing to help finance.

Sale price of the home is 520k. I know the market well and don't anticipate any appraisal issues. Seller has owned the home since 2002. It has always been a rental and never been owner occupied. My income and DTI are excellent. My credit is above 800. I own one rental property free and clear and have a small note on my primary. This will be a 2nd home/vacation property. Would like to keep my down payment to 10%.

I'm considering proposing an 80/10/10 whereby I secure a conventional 417k first, ask the seller to hold a 10% 2nd and cover the rest in cash.

I'm wondering though if it might be more advantageous and attractive for the seller to hold the entire note. Home was purchased in 2002 and has always been a rental. Assuming the seller has been depreciating, he will be facing aprox 190k in recapture. Cap gains will be $0.

I would like to map out and present both options to the seller demonstrating roi and tax implications for each scenario. I'm not a sophisticated investor and am hoping some of the pros on this board can help me crunch the numbers for my pitch.

Thanks in advance for your help.

Loading replies...