Buying with cash, immediately selling on land contract or some sort of owner financing

[Patrick Britton]

How might this work (is it legal?):  Seller "A" sells property for $100,000 to Buyer "A."  Transaction is 100% cash, no financing whatsoever.   Buyer "A" then immediately sells to Buyer "B" on land contract or lease option, or some sort of owner financing.

Question:  would someone (title) have an issue with the immediate sale from Buyer "A" to Buyer "B."  Given it's a cash transaction initially, does this negate any mandatory waiting period?  Is it a non issue given the second transaction is between two individuals and not a lender?  Would it be best to have 2 title companies work the deal?  

cheers!

p.s.  since someone is clearly going to ask let me save you the trouble:  Seller "A" will ONLY accept cash.