What would be a typical seller's premium for as "Subject to" sale?

[Scott Smith]

Curious about the potential advantages to a seller for doing a "subject to" sale where existing financing stays with the property after sale.  Specifically, for a duplex with market value of $450,000.  Existing loan of $225,000 at 3.625%, 30 year fixed with 28 years left on the loan would stay with the property.

As the seller, what premium or benefit could I expect for allowing the loan to be "assumed" by the buyer?   As opposed to doing a standard sale where the buyer pays cash or obtains their own financing.