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Updated about 2 years ago on . Most recent reply

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Cameron Salmon
  • Houston, TX
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Better to use Owner Financing or Subject to?

Cameron Salmon
  • Houston, TX
Posted

I have a property I want to buy from a couple getting a divorce, but it has an existing mortgage with a balance of $150,000. Asking Price is $180,000 with $20,000 down payment. He's okay with seller financing, but is seller financing possible with an existing mortgage? Does the seller hold the mortgage and I just make payments to him? Or would I have to do subject to? Should I consult an attorney to get everything in order or just go through title company? My first deal so I'm lost on what I need to do. I have the down payment ready to go, I just don't really know where to even start paperwork-wise. Thanks for your time everyone.

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Steve Vaughan#1 Personal Finance Contributor
  • Rental Property Investor
  • East Wenatchee, WA
16,114
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Steve Vaughan#1 Personal Finance Contributor
  • Rental Property Investor
  • East Wenatchee, WA
Replied

I wouldn't do either if they're both on the title and mortgage.   

They will most likely need to sell and split it or the one that keeps the house will need to refinance to satisfy the divorce decree. 

A wrap or sub2 pre-divorce will be a mess. 

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