Subject To Financing & Due on Sale Clause

[Christian Ehlers]

So I've listened to several podcasts on this topic but can't remember if there was a way to know for sure that a lender wouldn't call the loan due if there was a due on sale clause and an investor or regular buyer tries to assume the current mortgage?

From what I understand the lender usually doesn't want to take a loan that is performing and making money, and turn it into a non-performing loan, so they wouldn't want to call it due and cause potential problems. However, with so many people now having 2 or 3% interest rates on their loan, and current rates being near 8%, would these lenders now have incentive to call the loan due or force the new owner to refinance if they tried to assume the 3% mortgage?

Thanks for any insights on this BP!