Does an Office space count as owner-occupied?

[Bruce Olsen]

I have recently been told that a property owner can qualify for a conventional loan (which requires the owner to occupy the property) by maintaining an office on the property. For example, a landlord owns a duplex, and builds an office space in the basement. 

The information came directly from a bank (not sure what the role of the banker was).

I'm very skeptical, given the prominent use of "primary residence" all over the rules I've seen--though I can imagine some smaller banks that don't sell off their loans might be willing to allow it.

Does anyone have any solid experience/evidence on one side or the other?

Thanks!