Strange FHA Loan Eligibilty Question

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Hello everyone,

I cannot seem to find the answer to my question through research, although I may have gotten a bit lazy in my search knowing the knowledgeable people of BP might have the answer. Here's my situation:

In 2011 my grandmother purchased a property for me. I was 19 at the time and, despite having a decent job, imagined I would have been laughed out of any bank. So, the property is under her name. I had been paying the mortgage while rehabbing the property and later moved in. Eventually I decided it would be best to rent the property. Mortgage, tax, and insurance come in at $840 while the rent checks are flowing at $1,700. The problem is that the checks are in her name. Which brings me to my question.

I would like to file a quitclaim deed in order to be able to report this income under my name. I will make more money on paper and will have my landlord experience recorded. I imagine this will make my next purchase easier, especially due to the apparent income boost. But... will doing this disqualify me from receiving an FHA loan on my next (but technically first) purchase? Why or why not? Is there a better way to approach this?