Refinancing a Primary Residence Post-Flip

[Tim Porsche]

Hey All, got a quick question for you about a hypothetical situation. If you buy a house with a conventional mortgage, as your primary residence, and do a live in flip, then you go to refinance it after a year based on the ARV and you intend to rent it out, you would be refinancing at about a 1% higher interest rate since you are going to rent it out and not occupy it, is that correct? Or could you still refinance at the lower owner-occupied rate if you are still currently living there, even if you intend to rent it out in the near future? Thanks in advance for any advice, I'm just curious as to how that would work.