Trouble Grasping This Concept:

[Chris Farinella]

“More valuable homes are likely to cash flow less, if at all, than lower value homes”

I hear this repeated a lot and haven’t yet heard or found the explanation. I assumed that more valuable homes would simply have much higher debt payments and taxes, but then I’ve seen the concept being talked about while referencing cash deals or various other methods of financing, so it seems the debt isn’t the main factor.

So why is it lower value homes generally cash flow greater than higher value homes?