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Updated over 2 years ago,
How Does OPM Investing Work?
I am trying to get a better understand of how using OPM works in RE financing. Specifically, how would you determine how much an investor gets after a flip, or cash flow for rental income? Here are two examples. I am aware there are other costs to think about, but just keeping the numbers simple for the purpose of understanding.
1) Flip: Say purchase price and rehab costs on a home is 300k, and you flipped for 450k. You put a down payment of 20% (60k) and got 120k each from two investors. So since your net profit was 150k, how much would each investor get and how much would I keep? Or is this a horrible investment because the net profit doesn't even equal the OPM I used?
2) Rental: Same purchase price of $300k. Used 240k OPM split evenly between two investors. Rental cash flow is $500/month. How much would each investor get, how much would I keep?
I hope this makes sense. Really trying to understand how I would pitch these kinds of investments to potential private lenders...
1) Flip: Say purchase price and rehab costs on a home is 300k, and you flipped for 450k. You put a down payment of 20% (60k) and got 120k each from two investors. So since your net profit was 150k, how much would each investor get and how much would I keep? Or is this a horrible investment because the net profit doesn't even equal the OPM I used?
2) Rental: Same purchase price of $300k. Used 240k OPM split evenly between two investors. Rental cash flow is $500/month. How much would each investor get, how much would I keep?
I hope this makes sense. Really trying to understand how I would pitch these kinds of investments to potential private lenders...