Skip to content
×
PRO
Pro Members Get Full Access!
Get off the sidelines and take action in real estate investing with BiggerPockets Pro. Our comprehensive suite of tools and resources minimize mistakes, support informed decisions, and propel you to success.
Advanced networking features
Market and Deal Finder tools
Property analysis calculators
Landlord Command Center
$0
TODAY
$69.00/month when billed monthly.
$32.50/month when billed annually.
7 day free trial. Cancel anytime
Already a Pro Member? Sign in here

Join Over 3 Million Real Estate Investors

Create a free BiggerPockets account to comment, participate, and connect with over 3 million real estate investors.
Use your real name
By signing up, you indicate that you agree to the BiggerPockets Terms & Conditions.
The community here is like my own little personal real estate army that I can depend upon to help me through ANY problems I come across.
General Real Estate Investing
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

Updated over 2 years ago, 08/04/2022

User Stats

40
Posts
16
Votes
Steven Holiday
  • Rental Property Investor
  • Central California
16
Votes |
40
Posts

Conventional Owner/Occupy with Rental Potential

Steven Holiday
  • Rental Property Investor
  • Central California
Posted

Hello Friends.

Thanks for all your posts and new information. I learn a lot. Let me ask for some input on a situation I’m considering.

My wife and I are qualified for a five percent down loan, owner occupy. Conventional. Not FHA.

There’s a mid-century house that is listed at four bed / three bath.

When we visited the home with the seller’s realtor, we learned that the house is actually barely a 3/1.75, but it has a decent apartment above the unfinished, two-car garage.

This is why it’s listed 4/3.

The apartment was occupied by a nonpaying tenant until he left with rent unpaid. The apartment is in shoddy shape; not terrible, but certainly not rent ready. I won’t know the full situation until someone does a more thorough walkthrough.

In addition to the garage apartment, there’s a two-car garage by the alley that is just studs and roof, but the deceased parent of the seller always wanted to turn that structure into an apartment as well. Currently, it would be perfect for storage, but not hooked for electric, water, etc.

The idea I am considering is this.

  1. I get a property manager to agree to manage the finished, above garage unit, the unit by the alley, and the main house (after my family has lived in the main house as long as necessary).
  2. I get tight bids on rehabbing all three units and refi as soon as all three are rent-ready. The main house would need some work before we’d move in.
  3. Upon refinance, my costs are covered, choose to rent out or move into the main house.

My question at the moment is…

  1. Could I refi after only three or four months of rehab?
  2. Would I still be need to plan to occupy the property even if I refi?
  3. Technically, this property is still a single family with an extra bed and bath above the garage. Is this listing not exactly in line with the intention of the loan? Obviously, I don’t want to get involved in anything shady and even if I did, wouldn’t a shady situation be picked up by the appraisal?

I sure apologize if this is too confusing. It makes a lot more sense in my brain than I’m able to type out.

Thanks in advance for any guidance.

Loading replies...