Is the "seller" the owner?

[Greg Tunes]

Hello, everyone.

A seller called me about selling his property. The property has a mortgage on it. However, the seller hasn’t paid a PENNY on it since 2007. Yes, 2007! Yet, the property is still in the seller’s name.

I asked how is it possible to neglect a mortgage for over a decade and still be on the title. The seller did not know for sure. Instead, he stated he filed a Chapter 7 bankruptcy which the property was included in the bankruptcy.

After checking some court documents, I saw the bank started the foreclosure process in 2009, but did not finished (no one was served).

So, does the seller still own the property? And if so, is the mortgage still valid? 

I do not think so, but this is new to me.

Thanks for the feedback in advance!