Skip to content
×
PRO
Pro Members Get Full Access!
Get off the sidelines and take action in real estate investing with BiggerPockets Pro. Our comprehensive suite of tools and resources minimize mistakes, support informed decisions, and propel you to success.
Advanced networking features
Market and Deal Finder tools
Property analysis calculators
Landlord Command Center
$0
TODAY
$69.00/month when billed monthly.
$32.50/month when billed annually.
7 day free trial. Cancel anytime
Already a Pro Member? Sign in here

Join Over 3 Million Real Estate Investors

Create a free BiggerPockets account to comment, participate, and connect with over 3 million real estate investors.
Use your real name
By signing up, you indicate that you agree to the BiggerPockets Terms & Conditions.
The community here is like my own little personal real estate army that I can depend upon to help me through ANY problems I come across.
Foreclosures
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

Updated over 6 years ago,

User Stats

9,365
Posts
6,551
Votes
John Thedford#5 Wholesaling Contributor
  • Real Estate Broker
  • Naples, FL
6,551
Votes |
9,365
Posts

Investor Bought At Aucion-Turns Out To Be 2nd--Wants To Quiet 1st

John Thedford#5 Wholesaling Contributor
  • Real Estate Broker
  • Naples, FL
Posted

This is a local ordeal. Investor failed to have title run before bidding. They paid over 100K and then find out they bought the second. 1st hasn't been paid for over five years. They believe an attorney can do a quiet title action on the 1st because no action has been taken by 1st holder to collect. This is the second time a bidder bought a second but I believe the other bidder just forfeited their deposit. This bidder wired funds and THEN found out it is a second. Is this possible for a judge to simply rule that a 1st owed over a 100K automatically has no right to their funds because they have failed to act? This sound really off to me. Any legal minds have any input?

Loading replies...