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Updated over 3 years ago on . Most recent reply
![Danielle Becker's profile image](https://bpimg.biggerpockets.com/no_overlay/uploads/social_user/user_avatar/1949361/1621516924-avatar-danielleb139.jpg?twic=v1/output=image/crop=609x609@71x0/cover=128x128&v=2)
How can I Flip a Property Without Owning It?
Hello, I need help figuring out how to do this the best way without title, legal, or financial trouble.
We've negotiated a deal with a seller (who we know) that we'll buy his house for $345k in 3-6 months after we're done with renovations so that we can sell it and take the profit. It's like a mix of fix and flip and wholesaling. I know it's pretty dangerous to put money into a house that you don't own even if we know the person and we have a sales contract on it (which we don't have yet). But I'm wondering if there's a better way to do this or an addendum we could add to the contract to hold him liable for any expenses incurred in the event that he defaults on the sale.
I thought I could do seller financing but it's not free and clear and he still has a mortgage which I think would trigger a due on sale clause, right?
Would a promissory note be good in this situation? If so, how would you use it?
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@Danielle Becker I would not perform rehab on a property if you don't have title. Since you don't own the property, the rehab costs are not a business expense. That means more taxes on sale, not to mention the risk of him owning the rehabbed property.
Most people in your situation buy the property subject to existing financing. Just search out the term "subject to" and you will find tons of discussions in the forums about it. You will buy the house and take title. You will give him money at closing and make his monthly payment for 3-6 months. At the end of rehab, you sell the property and pay off the loan. Then on your taxes, you can claim the rehab expenses against the proceeds of the sale.
The loan stays in the sellers name. Technically it could trigger due on sale clause, but assuming you are paying the monthly mortgage bill, they have no reason to foreclose. Just the process of foreclosing takes months to initiate and there is no point if they are getting paid.
Usually the seller is paid lump sum at closing that is the difference between the amount owed and selling price. If that is burdensome financially, you could pay part at closing (like $1000) and have him hold additional seller financing. You are making two payments in that case, one on his original mortgage and the other to him on the difference. You can write the loan as 30 year amortization with 1 year balloon. Say the difference is $40,000 at 30 year amortization, that is $190 per month. You pay that until you sell it and then lump sum the outstanding balance. At closing, your business gets a check, the sellers mortgage company gets a pay off check and the seller gets their pay off.
People do this strategy all the time and there is very little risk.