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Updated over 5 years ago on . Most recent reply
Anyone experienced out there who knows this answer?
Hey guys,
I know one of you out there will have a good idea here...
So my father owns a property in California (Los Angeles) that currently has a market value of ~$820K. He bought it back in 2006 for about $500K. Since he made interest-only payments, that is still the amount owed.
He recently filed for bankruptcy and the home is in a foreclosure motion.
Does the following idea make any sense?
- I add myself to the home title
- Refinance for a $500K loan to pay off the amount owed by my father and bring home out of foreclosure (there will be at least 20% equity in the home)
- Then either sell the house for market value or rent it for a few hundred bucks cash flow
So my questions are:
1. Is this possible>?
2. Are there any legal implications?
3. Will it mess up my credit?
4. Should I pay off the past-due amount to bring it out of the foreclosure motion, or wait until the refi?
Any and all answers would help. Thanks everyone!