Texas standard 1-4 contract.

[Jason Smith]

As a married person I have bought and sold real estate solely in my name in the past. But this weekend I had an agent write an contract and told me that I am “required” to have my wife’s and my name both on the contract since we are a community property state. I can’t seem to find anything that supports or debunks this claim. Have I done it incorrectly in the past or is this agent misinformed? Where can I find any supporting documentation? This doesn’t seem like this would be correct because to me that would essentially be saying that the state prohibits buying assets singularly. Where does that stop? Could a married individual not buy a car with out both parties signing? This just seems off. Thanks for the help