Absentee owner wants to use their Closing Agent?

[Mark Sloan]

I have a seller that wants to use their closing agent but I would rather use mine since I am looking to do a double close (wholesale deal).  The property is here in GA and the seller is in TX (and wants to use their closing company there). Isn't it required that the closing/title company be in the same state? 

Also, my contract doesn't state the location of closing (lesson learned) but it does say "emd will be held at 'insert my closing attorneys office name here'". Is that grounds to say we have to close with my attorney based on the contract?

Thanks!