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Updated over 9 years ago,
broker saying you can't do 5/1 on non-owner occupied
for owner occupied conforming loans it seems the rate difference between 5/1 and 30 yr fixed is ~.75% -1% ( I am talking about no-point no fee)
I was thinking the same differential will apply for non-owner occupied. I am looking at a townhome as investment property.
My broker says for no-point, no-fee the and non-owner occupied the price difference is only .25%. Reason: fannie mae charges much more points for 5/1 non-owner so the rate difference doesn't remain the same.
IS that right?