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Updated about 10 years ago,
Assuming a sellers mortgage?
We came in to contact with a lead through our DM campaign that has three properties he wants to move. He only wants to get what he owes on the properties. They are all three rented as investment properties.
Property One:
2/1 1k sqft
Mortgage: 64k
Rent is 770 on section 8
Mortgage inc piti: 900 (15 year fixed at 4.5%)
Property Two:
3/2 1052sqft
Mortgage: 57k
Rent: 825
Mortgage inc piti:540 (30 year fixed at 5%)
Property Three:
3/1 864sqft
Mortgage:41k
Rent:700
Mortgage Inc piti:410 (30 year fixed at 5%)
Property one would only make sense if we could refinance it and create a better cash flow situation.
Properties 2 and 3 he wants to do a package deal because they are owned with a partner. Would it be possible to offer to assume the loan from him to avoid getting a traditional loan? When doing so is there a due-on-sale clause?