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Updated almost 11 years ago,
Subject To refinancing
I am currently a renter. I've been in my home over 6 years and it looks like the owners would like to sell. At this point I don't have the credit to obtain a loan, and the owners have already stated that the loan is unassumable. I was wondering... If I can convince to to sell me the home "subject too", would I be able to get a loan for the property in my own name later on? They way I understand it, the deed and therefore the home would be mine, but since I don't have a loan it wouldn't be a refinance. Has anyone ever done this?