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Updated 12 months ago on . Most recent reply
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![Roger D Jones's profile image](https://bpimg.biggerpockets.com/no_overlay/uploads/social_user/user_avatar/2887809/1703857884-avatar-rogerd80.jpg?twic=v1/output=image/crop=963x963@158x0/cover=128x128&v=2)
That is a very complicated hypothetical. We do know that per capita income in the colonies was far better here than in England. We also know that prior to the industrial revolution that individual wealth was driven by property ownership and that the cost of building a home was far less in real dollars than it is now. To have a home you had to have property and if you were going to build a home it was usually a very nice home. Those too poor to own property usually lived on the property of others in shelters provided/rented or lived in rooms rented in the cities.
Property drove personal wealth- hence the migration west during the 1850s. It wasn't some great job with matching 401ks that put families into covered wagons just to fight native Americans... it was dream of property ownership. I don't even think mortgages existed at that time.
How that relates to a Founding Father's interpretation of a mobile home park is hard to say. I would imagine they would look at it and ask why would anyone rent a tiny piece of land that barely has space for a home.