Skip to content
×
PRO
Pro Members Get Full Access!
Get off the sidelines and take action in real estate investing with BiggerPockets Pro. Our comprehensive suite of tools and resources minimize mistakes, support informed decisions, and propel you to success.
Advanced networking features
Market and Deal Finder tools
Property analysis calculators
Landlord Command Center
$0
TODAY
$69.00/month when billed monthly.
$32.50/month when billed annually.
7 day free trial. Cancel anytime
Already a Pro Member? Sign in here

Join Over 3 Million Real Estate Investors

Create a free BiggerPockets account to comment, participate, and connect with over 3 million real estate investors.
Use your real name
By signing up, you indicate that you agree to the BiggerPockets Terms & Conditions.
The community here is like my own little personal real estate army that I can depend upon to help me through ANY problems I come across.
Mortgage Brokers & Lenders
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

Updated over 10 years ago, 08/19/2014

User Stats

2
Posts
0
Votes
Kevin Enos
0
Votes |
2
Posts

Selling a home "Subject 2" the existing mortgage.

Kevin Enos
Posted

My question is about when a home owner sells their home "Subject 2" - meaning deeding the house to someone else but leaving their existing mortgage in place. If that seller tries to buy a new home afterwards, will the mortgage payment on the house they sold "Subject 2" count against their DTI when qualifying for a mortgage on their new house? On one hand, they don't have income (like rent) to offset the old mortgage. But on the other hand, someone else IS making the payments. How would most FHA and Conventional Underwriters handle this? Thanks!

Loading replies...