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Updated about 1 year ago on . Most recent reply
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RE Agent marketed my property without my consent. Is this unethical?
I showed my off-market triplex to two investors. One of the investors is also an agent. Let's call him Agent 1. Agent 1 and I signed a purchase agreement at $243k yesterday, with Agent 1 as a buyer.
The other investor then reaches out and informs me that he had seen my property and details on Facebook, being marketed by a different agent for $299k. Let's call him Agent 2. I contact Agent 2 who informs me that Agent 1 had reached out to Agent 2 to see if he'd have any buyers. It took us a while to get on the same page and understand that Agent 1 was actually the buyer for my property. AFTER we had a purchase agreement, Agent 1 then reached out to Agent 2 to inform them the property was no longer available.
Now, I understand wholesaling, where a purchase contract is sold. In this situation, Agent 1 had marketed my property to Agent 2, who placed the details on Facebook, before we had a purchase agreement.
I spoke today with Agent 1 (the buyer now) and he was very apologetic that this got back to me. He said he had sent the details to Agent 2 to see if he'd personally be interested in the property at the markup.
If this were any John Doe investor, it would be one thing. But this investor is also an agent, and I feel he may have violated ethical standards by marketing my property to the other agent prior to having any sort of contract. Am I overreacting to this?
Most Popular Reply
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Quote from @James Alderman:
@Caleb Brown Thanks! The purchase agreement didn't have any assignees if that's what you're asking. It was being marketed before there was any purchase agreement or consent given.
We're in contract now (before I learned of all this), and it just threw me for a loop. I don't plan to complain, but it seemed like a red flag. Certainly it's their business if they sell after.
What do you mean "the buyer that goes U/C"? I'm not familiar with the term.
UC is often referred to as Under Contract. Even though there is no assign language in the contract, in some states, if it doesn't state otherwise in the contract, you can still assign your rights. In my opinion, that would still be considered an unethical practice.