1% Rule, Am I missing something?

[Joas Espinoza]

So I know that the 1% rule states that your property’s monthly income should be approx 1 percent of the purchase price.

However, let’s say I purchase a single family home worth 600k. Wouldn’t it be a little absurd to claim $6,000 rent? Assuming that no rent increases occur. How would this amount even be justified?

Or does this rule only apply to multi family properties?