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Updated over 1 year ago,
1031 Exchange when I have no proceeds at settlement due to big refi in the past
Here is my situation:
I bought an investment property and improved it. All-in for $200k cash. I refinanced it and have a mortgage on the property for $450k. I'm planning on selling it now and it should sell for about $500k or less. Assuming $50k in closing costs, I should have $0 in proceeds from sale or even bring money to the table to pay off mortgage.
Net Sales Price will be $450k ($500k less $50k closing costs)
Cost basis is $200k (assume its already adjusted for depreciation for simplicity)
Capital Gain is $250k
Am I right to not include the refinance proceeds in the above scenario when calculating capital gains? If so, I want to do a 1031 exchange to avoid capital gains tax. Would that be possible? If so, how does the refinance play into that? Also, the fact that I won't get proceeds from settlement.
I feel like I'm missing something here.